This module’s readings “The construction of a ‘realistic utopia’: John Rawls and international political theory,” discusses Rawl’s position that there can be no international distributive justice because international society is fundamentally different from domestic society. Specifically, it is argued that in the international realm there is no “co-operative scheme for mutual advantage,” and thus there is no output to distribute. Do you think that in light of globalization and the economic linkages it creates amongst countries that Rawls is correct about this? Explain. Should goods and services that are produced globally be considered “output?” Why or why not?
does not have to be a full page at all! thanks